Transfusion Medicine
Fouad Boctor
Naomi Luban
▪ Question
1. Irradiated blood products are indicated for all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
a. Low birth weight newborns
b. In utero exchange transfusion
c. Congenital immunodeficiency disorders
d. Acquired immunodeficiency (HIV)
e. Severe leukopenia patients receiving granulocyte transfusions
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1. d. Blood products are irradiated to disable the T cell lymphocytes, which are the major cells causing transfusion-associated graft versus host disease (TAGVHD). Patients who require irradiated blood include low birth weight newborns, infants requiring in utero red cell exchange, congenital immunodeficiency, patients receiving granulocytes transfusions, patients with Hodgkin lymphoma, and patients who are receiving intensive immunosuppressive chemotherapy. There are no reports of TAGVHD in HIV-infected patients.
2. Select the blood product that does NOT require irradiation for a patient on an irradiation restriction:
a. Whole blood
b. Red blood cells
c. Granulocytes
d. Fresh plasma
e. Fresh frozen plasma
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2. e. All blood products which contain viable lymphocytes need to be irradiated. There are no viable lymphocytes in fresh frozen plasma (FFP). Lymphocytes become nonfunctional when frozen and thawed. However, fresh plasma contains viable cells.
3. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) requires the periphery of a unit of irradiated blood product receive NOT less than:
a. 50 G
b. 35 G
c. 20 G
d. 15 G
e. 10 G
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3. d. The FDA requires irradiation exposure to be a minimum of 15 G at the periphery of the irradiated field and 25 G at the center.
4. The time needed for irradiating a unit of blood is:
a. 60 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 20 minutes
d. 5 minutes
e. Source half-life
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4. e. Most of irradiators have a Cesium or Cobalt as a source for irradiation. The intensity and dose of irradiation depends on the half life of the source and not on the time of exposure. Recently intensive X-ray has been used for the source to irradiate the lymphocytes.
5. A pregnant medical technologist is working in the hospital blood bank and an irradiated platelet unit is ordered for a patient with Wiskott Aldrich syndrome. Which one of the following is correct?
a. The pregnant medical technologist is excused from irradiating the blood products.
b. The patient with Wiskott Aldrich syndrome does not need an irradiated platelet unit.
c. The pregnant medical technologist must wear a lead shield during the irradiation process.
d. There is no risk to a pregnant medical technologist during the irradiation process.
e. The risk to the pregnant patient varies depending on the irradiation source.
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5. d. The irradiation source (cesium) is shielded with lead; any person including pregnant women may use the irradiator.
6. Which of the following associations or agencies is involved in the inspection of a radiation source used in the blood bank?
a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
b. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)
c. American Association of Blood Banks (AABB)
d. FDA and NRC
e. AABB, FDA, and NRC
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6. e. AABB and FDA are the usual inspection agencies for Blood Banks. Recently Congress passed a bill allowing the NRC the right to inspect the security for any institute use radioactive sources.
7. Which of the following is the correct biochemical moiety that defines blood group A?
a. L-fucose
b. N-acetylgalactosamine
c. D-galactose
d. D-mannose
e. N-acetylneuraminic acid
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7. b. The ABO antigens are carbohydrate antigen which can be attached to proteins, sphingolipid, or lipid carrier molecules. The basic structure of ABH antigen is a linear oligosaccharide chain composed of three monosaccharides, adding fucose will form H (O) antigens, further adding N-acetylgalactosamine or galactose to form group A or B antigen. So, group A has N-acetylgalactosamine and group B has galactose moiety.
8. The dominant immunoglobulin isotype found in antibodies to the A and B blood group antigens is:
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE
e. IgD
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8. b. The ABO blood groups are carbohydrate antigens while IgM is the immunoglobin isotype produced as anti-ABO antibody.
9. Hemolytic disease of the newborn due to ABO discrepancy is a milder disorder than Rh (D) incompatibility. The reason is that:
a. The placenta contains ABO antigen, which absorbs the AB antigen.
b. The trophoblasts contain a hydrolytic enzyme that destroys the ABO antibody.
c. The newborn’s red cells have not developed ABO antigen.
d. The newborn’s plasma contains a neutralizing factor for ABO.
e. The ABO antibody cannot cross the placenta/blood barrier.
10. Conversion of group A to group O is dependent on which enzyme?
a. Galactosidase
b. N-acetylgalactosidase
c. Glucosidase
d. Neuraminidase
e. Trypsin
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10. b. N-acetylgalactosidase can split or remove N-acetylgalactosamine from group A antigen and convert A to O antigen. This technique was used to artificially produce O blood type which is then transfused to patients with no side effects. However, preparing this product is not cost-effective for wide use.
11. Which of the following enzyme would convert group B to group O?
a. Galactosidase
b. N-acetylgalactosidase
c. Glucosidase
d. Neuraminidase
e. Trypsin
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11. c. Galactosidase can break down or remove the galactose from B antigen and convert B to O.
12. Hemolytic transfusion reactions secondary to platelet transfusions are most likely to occur when the donor is:
a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type O
d. Type AB
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12. c. Type O plasma contains anti-A and anti-B antibodies. O plasma with high titer of anti-A and anti-B antibodies can cause hemolytic transfusion reaction (HTR).
13. A patient with blood type A2, Rh negative needs two units of red cells; O Rh negative inventory is critically low. Select the most appropriate action.
a. Type all A red cells for A2 phenotype.
b. Call the blood center to obtain two units of A2 blood.
c. Titrate the level of anti A in the patient’s serum.
d. Call the patient’s physician and explain the possibility of major hemolytic transfusion reaction if patient is receiving A1 red cells.
e. Crossmatch and release two units of A1 red cells.
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13. e. Patients with type A2 may have low level of clinically insignificant anti-A antibody. A2 type patient may receive either A1 or O red cells.
Questions 14-20:
A 47-year-old female patient complained of weakness and confusion for four days. Her husband also noticed red spots on her arms. The laboratory data showed: hemoglobin 9 gm/dl, hematocrit 28%, platelets 25×109/L, PT 14 seconds (N 12-16), APTT 28 (N 24-36).
14. What other analyte would be expected to be significantly elevated?
a. Total protein
b. White cell count
c. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
d. Antiplatelet antibodies
e. Factor VII
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14. c. This is a case of micro angiopathy hemolytic anemia (thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura [TTP]) which causes destruction of red cells. Lactate dehydrogenase (LD) is usually elevated in any destruction process in the body.
15. Additional laboratory data revealed: LD 1400 IU (N 175-225), creatinine 2.7 mg/dl (N 0.8-1.7), BUN 53 mg/dl (N 24-35). The patient’s vital signs are also normal. What is your preliminary diagnosis?
a. Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)
b. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
c. Valvular obstruction
d. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
e. Toxicity with herbal medications
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15. b. There are many causes that could cause thrombocytopenia accompanied with low hemoglobin and normal coagulation. Although TTP is the key disorder in the differential diagnosis, malignant hypertension must also be included. With normal blood pressure and normal coagulation, TTP is the most logical diagnosis.
16. The transfusion medicine physician advised her physician to do plasmapheresis. Which of the following statements concerning the use of plasmapheresis is correct?
a. It removes fragment red cells.
b. It increases high molecular weight von Willebrand factor.
c. It removes platelet antibodies.
d. It removes high molecular weight von Willebrand factor.
e. Plasmapheresis will stabilize the hypertension.
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16. d. In TTP, the main pathology is the presence of high molecular weight (MW) von Willebrand factor (vWF) with formation of microthrombi. The apheresis will remove the high MW vWF and in more than 50% of patients will remove the ADAMTS13 inhibitors (autoantibodies).
17. The most appropriate replacement fluid for plasmapheresis in this patient is:
a. Saline 0.85%
b. 2% sodium citrate
c. Lactated Ringer solution
d. Fresh frozen plasma
e. 5% human serum albumin
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17. d. Plasma is the preferred replacement fluid in TTP with dual functions; pheresis removes high MW vWF, removes ADAMTS13 inhibitor, and increases ADAMTS13 level.
18. During the apheresis procedure, the patient complained of tingling of her lips. What is the possible cause of this symptom?
a. Fluid overload
b. Splenic sequestration of platelets
c. Decreased ionized calcium
d. Decreased potassium ions
e. Increased sodium ions
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18. c. These symptoms are due to citrate toxicity secondary to decrease in ionized calcium.
19. How would you treat this symptom?
a. Terminate the procedure.
b. Assure patient and do nothing.
c. Administer KCl.
d. Administer NaCl.
e. Administer Ca gluconate.
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19. e. Calcium gluconate may be given; the best route is intravenously. Oral calcium salt is acceptable but not effective in many patients.
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Treatment with a beta blocker
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Treatment with an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
e. Internal bleeding
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20. d. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor may interact with the polymers of the plastic bags and activate the kallikrein system and produce severe hypotension.
21. During a routine type and screen, a patient typed as A positive. Three screening cell were 3+ positive. The 12-cell panel showed 3+ positivity for all cells tested. The direct antiglobulin test was negative. These findings best describe:
a. Auto antibody
b. Multiple alloantibodies
c. Antibody against high-frequency antigen
d. Antibody against D antigen
e. Nonspecific reaction
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21. c. Antibody against a high frequency antigen may produce positive reactions in all tested red cells; however, the DAT test is always negative in these cases.
22. What is the most common complication of apheresis?
a. Fluid overload
b. Air embolism
c. Citrate toxicity
d. TRALI
e. Elevated blood pressure
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22. c. Citrate toxicity is the most common side effect of plasmapheresis due to low plasma ionized calcium.
23. What is the most common replacement fluid for plasmapheresis performed for thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?
a. Saline
b. Plasma protein preparation
c. Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)
d. 5% albumin
e. Plasma
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23. d. Plasma is the most common replacement fluid for TTP. FFP, 24-plasma, and thawed plasma can all be used. Plasma will remove high MW von Willebrand factor and ADAMTS13 inhibitor, and will increase the ADAMSTS13 level.
24. Red blood cell anticoagulant/preservative solutions contain all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Dextrose
b. Adenine
c. Monobasic sodium phosphate
d. Calcium citrate
e. Mannitol
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24. d. Calcium citrate is not part of the additive in red cell preservative solutions. Sodium citrate is added as anticoagulant, phosphate salts function as buffer, dextrose, and mannitol as source of carbohydrate for energy production, and adenine as source for ATP.
25. Red blood cell anticoagulant/preservative solution AS (Adsol) permits storage for up to:
a. 21 days
b. 28 days
c. 35 days
d. 42 days
e. 49 days
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25. d. The shelf life is 42 days for all new red cell preservative solutions including AS-1, AS-3.
26. During red cell storage all the following changes occur EXCEPT:
a. Decreased 2,3 diphosphoglycerate
b. Increased plasma hemoglobin
c. Decreased pH
d. Increased ATP
e. Increased serum potassium
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26. d. During red cell storage, both ATP and 2,3 diphosoglycerate are decreased by red cells metabolism, pH is decreased due to H ion production, and plasma hemoglobin and potassium ions are elevated due to red cell hemolysis.
27. Which of the following statements correctly describes the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve for red cells refrigeration stored for greater than two weeks?
a. The curve is shifted to the right.
b. The curve is shifted to the left.
c. There is no change in the position of the curve.
d. The shape of the curve is changed from S (sigmoid) shape to Z shape.
e. The shape of the curve is changed from Z shape to S (sigmoid) shape.
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27. b. During red cells storage the red cells and the 2,3-diphosoglycerate concentration are reduced. The very low 2,3 DPG will shift the Hb-O association curve to the left.
28. Cryoprecipitated antihemophilic factor (AHF) is enriched with all of the following coagulant proteins EXCEPT:
a. Fibrinogen
b. Von Willebrand factor
c. Factor VIII
d. Factor VII
e. Factor XIII
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28. d. Cryoprecipitated antihemophilic factor (AHF) is enriched with fibrogen, von Willebrand factor, factor VIII and factor XIII. Factor VII is present in low concentration in cryoprecipitate AHF.
29. When recombinant factor VIII is NOT available, what is an alternative blood product to treat a patient with factor VIII deficiency with a small joint hematoma?
a. Fresh whole blood
b. Plasma-derived von Willebrand factor
c. Cryo-depleted plasma
d. Cryoprecipitate
e. Fresh plasma
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29. d. Cryoprecipitate AHF is rich in fibrinogen, von Willebrand factor, factor VIII, and factor XIII.
30. Thawed pooled cryoprecipitated AHF can be stored at room temperature for a maximum of:
a. 2 hours
b. 4 hours
c. 8 hours
d. 12 hours
e. 24 hours
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30. b. Thawed Cryoprecipitate AHF will expire in 4 hours in an open system or pooled; 6 hours if thawed and not pooled.
31. All of the following statements about granulocyte product collected by apheresis are true EXCEPT:
a. It should be irradiated.
b. It may be stored for up to 72 hours.
c. It should be kept at room temperature.
d. It should be stored with gentle agitation.
e. It should be crossmatched with the recipient serum.
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31. b. Apheresis granulocyte function is time-dependent. Phagocytic functions deteriorate with time and a unit becomes unuseful after 24 hours and may be discarded.
32. The antibody implicated in hemolytic disease of the newborn that is most likely to suppress fetal erythropoiesis is:
a. Anti-Fya antibodies
b. Anti-Jkb antibodies
c. Anti-D antibodies
d. Anti-Rh 17 antibodies
e. Anti-K0 antibodies
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32. e. Anti-Ko antibodies are known to suppress fetal bone marrow, causing intrauterine and postpartum severe anemic.
33. Which of the following red cell antigens serves as a receptor for plasmodium vivax?
a. Jka and Jkb
b. Lewis A and Lewis B
c. P antigen
d. Fya and Fyb
e. Glycophorin A and B
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33. d. Duffy antigens are receptors for plasmodium vivax. In Africa, most of population are Duffy negative due elimination of infected Duffy positive population.
34. All of the following are true for the anti-JKa and anti-JKb antibodies EXCEPT:
a. They may be missed if present in low titer.
b. They have high affinity and high avidity.
c. They require the presence of complement to detect.
d. They may cause delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction.
e. They are low frequency antigens and rarely cause hemolysis.
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34. e. Anti-Kidd antibodies are high-affinity and highavidity antibodies. Roughly, 72% of whites are Jk(a+,b+) and their antibodies can cause moderate to severe hemolytic transfusion reaction.
35. All of the following are true for Lewis A and B antigen EXCEPT:
a. Lewis antigens are glycolipid antigens.
b. Lewis antibodies are IgM isotype.
c. Lewis antibodies do not cause hemolytic transfusion reactions.
d. Lewis antigens are located at glycophorin A and B molecules.
e. Lewis antigens are well developed in neonates.
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35. e. The Lewis antigens are not developed in newborn and are not intrinsic to red cells but rather adsorbed from the plasma onto the red cell membranes and become expressed on glycosphingolipid type I chain. Lewis antibodies do not usually cause hemolysis.
36. What are the two most reliable laboratory findings to diagnose thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?
a. Low neutrophil count – positive neutrophil antibody assay
b. Low platelet count – positive anti-platelet antibody assay
c. Anemia – positive direct antiglobulin test
d. Low platelet count – low ADAMTS13
e. Low factor VIII activity-prolonged aPTT
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36. d. Low platelets and low ADAMT13 are the most reliable findings in TTP. In addition, elevated LDH, low hematocrit, and presence of ADAMTS13 inhibitors are present in most cases of TTP.
37. The pathophysiology of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is best described as resulting from:
a. Binding of red blood cells to endothelium
b. Activation of complement system
c. Activation of extrinsic coagulation pathway
d. Formation of red cell thrombus
e. Binding of platelets to HMW von Willebrand factor
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37. e. The binding of high molecular weight von Willebrand factor to the platelet and forming platelet thrombus is the main pathology in TTP.
38. Which apheresis fluid is LEAST likely to improve the clinical course of TTP?
a. Only male plasma
b. 50/50 plasma and 5% human serum albumin
c. Cryo-poor plasma
d. 5% human serum albumin
e. Fresh frozen plasma
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38. d. All plasma preparation may be used for apheresis of TTP including only male plasma which is collected only from male donors to prevent TRALI. Plasma will increase the level of ADAMTS13. Several studies showed that human serum albumin is not suitable replacement fluid for TTP treatment.
39. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TAGVHD) has a worse outcome than bone marrow transplant-associated graft host disease (BMTAGVHD) because:
a. The cell type responsible for TAGVHD is T lymphocyte while in BMTAGVHD is B lymphocytes.
b. The bone marrow hematopoietic trilineage is the main target in TAGVHD.
c. The activation of dendritic cells is augmented in TAGVHD.
d. Bone marrow transplant protects against GVHD.
e. Bone marrow transplant patients receive intensive immunosuppression.
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39. b. The exact cause for the severity of TAGVHD is not known. However, several publications supported the notion that the bone marrow hemopoietic trilineage cells may be the target for TAGVHD.
40. Transfusion-associated graft versus host disease may occur in all of the following disorders EXCEPT?
a. Hodgkin lymphoma
b. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
c. IgA deficiency
d. Patients treated with purine nucleoside analogs such as fludarabine and 2-cholrodeoxyadenosine (cladribine)
e. Intrauterine red cell exchange
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40. c. TAGVHD may develop in patients with cellular immunodeficiency (especially deficiency of T cells) and those receiving high doses of potent immunosuppressors. Patients with IgA deficiency have an intact immune system with deficiency of IgA production and will not develop transfusion-associated graft versus host disease. These patients do not require irradiated blood products.
41. The most appropriate measure to prevent transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease from platelet is:
a. Wash using automated equipment.
b. Filter using a leukoreduction filter.
c. Irradiate using 25G.
d. Use male only platelets.
e. Use directed donor platelets.
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41. c. The leukoreduction filter is not sufficient to remove all of the lymphocytes which can cause TAGFHD. Leukocyte-reduced blood products have efficient lymphocytes to cause TAGVHD. All other choices may also lead to TAGVHD except irradiation, which prevents proliferation of the donor lymphocytes.
42. The correct cell type responsible for transfusion-associated graft versus host disease in the animal model based on a number per kilogram is:
a. Lymphocytes
b. Nucleated RBCs
c. CD34 cells
d. Monocytes
e. Platelets
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42. a. Donor T lymphocyte population is the cellular component responsible for TAGVHD. Lymphocyte number is implicated.
43. The correct agent or mechanism responsible for transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) includes the following EXCEPT:
a. Presence of donor anti HLA class I antibodies in the recipient
b. Presence of donor antigranulocytes antibodies in the recipient
c. Presence of recipient antilymphocyte antibodies in the donor
d. Presence of donor anti-HLA Class I and antigranulocyte antibody in the recipient
e. Presence of recipient anti-HLA class II antibodies in donor.
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43. c. Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) may be caused by agglutinating patient granulocytes with donor anti-HLA or white cell antibodies in the small pulmonary arterioles and capillaries. All the mentioned agents could cause the TRALI except donor lymphocyte antibodies. No study has shown that anti-lymphocyte antibodies are responsible for TRALI.
44. Platelets have all of the following antigens EXCEPT:
a. HLA class II antigens
b. HLA class I antigens
c. ABO antigens
d.GPIIIb/IIa
e. HPA-1
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44. a. Platelets carry ABO group and HLA class I antigens but not HLA class II antigens. HLA class II antigens are expressed on antigen presenting cells including B lymphocytes, monocytes/macrophages, dendritic cells, and activated T lymphocytes.
45. What is the best management strategy for a patient diagnosed with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) without mucosal bleeding?
a. Monoclonal antibody treatment
b. Transfusion of leuko-reduced platelets
c. Transfusion of irradiated platelets
d. Immunosuppressive medications
e. Plasmapheresis
View Answer
45. d. ITP is treated with intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG), immunosuppressors, or splenectomy. In 2008, the FDA approved recombinant platelets growth factor for treatment of ITP.
46. What is the most common antibody found in a neonate born with thrombocytopenia?
a. Anti-HPA-1
b. Anti-HPA-2
c. Anti-HPA-3
d. Anti-HLA class I
e. Anti-HLA class II
47. Each of the following may be used in the treatment of ITP in a D negative (Rh negative) patient EXCEPT:
a. Corticosteroids
b. IVIG
c. Anti-D antibody
d. Splenectomy
e. DDAVP
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47. d. Anti D antibody may be used to treat D positive patients and not D negative patients. Anti-D will bind to Rh D positive red cells; the coated cells will attract phagocytic cells and prevent the attack on platelets coated with antibody.
48. The indications for platelet transfusions include each of the following EXCEPT:
a. A nonbleeding patient with platelets less than 10,000/µl
b. A nonbleeding, nonsurgical patient with platelet counts between 10,000 and 50,000/µl
c. A bleeding patient with platelets less than 50,000/µl
d. A bleeding patient with acute renal failure and platelets more than 50,000/µl
e. A bleeding patient with Glanzmann thrombathenia with platelets of 200,000/µl
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48. b. All of these conditions are indications for transfusion except non-bleeding patients with platelet count 20,000/µl or more. Several studies showed that 10,000/µl platelets have a reasonable haemostatic efficacy in non-bleeding patients.
49. The following criteria define a suitable blood donor EXCEPT:
a. Hemoglobin minimum of 12.5 g/dl
b. Age more than 70 years
c. History of jaundice before age of 11
d. Age of less than 18 years with parent consent
e. Received a tattoo one month prior
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49. e. All mentioned criteria are accepted for blood duties except tattoo done 1 month ago. For donor with recent tattoo, 12 months or more must relapsed before accepting the donor. There is no age limit for blood donation.
50. Which one of the following is an indication for blood donation deferral?
a. Return from traveling to a malaria endemic area less than a year ago
b. Tattoo performed less than three weeks ago
c. Receiving recombinant growth factor
d. Receiving rabies vaccine within the last two weeks
e. Receiving the flu vaccine two days ago
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50. c. All the mentioned criteria cause donor deferral except receiving recombinant growth factor. Donors who in the past received animal source growth factor are permanently deferred.
51. A transfusion-dependent patient received two units of packed red cells. Approximately 8 days posttransfusion, the patient developed severe thrombocytopenia. The probable cause of the thrombocytopenia is:
a. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura
b. Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura
c. Acute renal failure
d. Splenomegaly
e. Posttransfusion purpura
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51. e. Post transfusion purpura is a rare thrombocytopenia secondary to blood transfusion occurring 1 week to 9 days after red cell transfusion. It is characterized by abrupt onset of severe thrombocytopenia. Most patients have been previously transfused or pregnant. Fatal intracranial hemorrhage may occur. The mechanism of patient’s platelets destruction by what appears to be platelets alloantibody is controversial. Treatment with IVIG or plasmapheresis is often helpful.
52. Routine infectious disease testing for blood donors includes the following EXCEPT:
a. HIV by NAT testing
b. HCV by NAT testing
c. Cytomegalovirus by PCR
d. West Nile Virus by PCR
e. HTLV I/II by enzyme immune assay
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52. c. Screening for Cytomegalovirus by PCR is not a routine test for donor screening. It is not done routinely but upon request for patients whose immune system is suppressed such as in congenital immune deficiency, intrauterine blood exchange, or in those receiving highdose immunosuppression.
53. A single unit of thawed cryoprecipitated AHF if not transfused immediately should be stored under what conditions?
a. Eight hours at -20°C
b. One hour at 4°C
c. Six hours at 20-24°C
d. Refreeze the unit
e. Eight hours at 20-24°C
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53. c. Single unit of cryoprecipitated AHF may be, if not transfused immediately, stored for 6 hours at 20-24°C.
54. Pooled units of thawed pooled cryoprecipitated antihemophilic factor (AHF) stored at 20-24°C should be transfused within:
a. 24 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 4 hours
d. 3 days
e. 5 days
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54. c. Pooled cryoprecipitated AHF expires within 4 hours if kept at room temperature or 6 hours for a single unit.
55. Which of the following lectins are used to differentiate between A1 and A2 red cells?
a. Arachis hypogaea
b. Glycine max (soja)
c. Dolichos biflorus
d. Ulex europaeus
e. Saliva horminium
View Answer
55. c. Dolichos biflorus is a lectin which agglutinates A1 but not A2 red cells and may be used to differentiate between them.
56. Plant-derived lectins are chemically composed of:
a. Complex carbohydrates
b. Proteins
c. Glycoproteins
d. Lipoproteins
e. Small peptides
View Answer
56. c. Lectins are glycoproteins that may be bound to specific monosaccharides; either free monosaccharides or as part of glycoproteins.
57. A 62-year-old woman who received multiple blood transfusions due to chemotherapy-associated anemia, presents with petechia and bleeding eight days post red cell transfusion. The CBC shows hemoglobin of 9.5 gm/dl, hematocrit of 38%, white count of 8.5 × 109/l with 70 % segmented neutrophils, 24% lymphocytes,
5% monocytes and 1% eosinophils, and platelet count of 8.500 × 109/l.What is the diagnosis?
5% monocytes and 1% eosinophils, and platelet count of 8.500 × 109/l.What is the diagnosis?
a. Immune thrombocytopenia purpura
b. Chemotherapy associated thrombocytopenia purpura
c. Viral associated thrombocytopenia purpura
d. Posttransfusion purpura
e. Malignancy associated thrombocytopenia purpura
View Answer
57. d. Posttransfusion purpura is a rare post-red cell transfusion complication. It is characterized by severe thrombocytopenia occurring within an average 9 days (range of 1-24 days) after red cell transfusion. Most affected patients have been pregnant or transfused.
58. A newborn presents with petechia on the trunk. The baby is diagnosed with neonatal associated thrombocytopenia purpura. The mother is found to have antibodies against rare platelet antigens. The maternal aunt’s platelets are transfused to the newborn. Ten days later the baby presents with fever, hepatitis, diarrhea, and dermatitis. The cause of these symptoms is:
a. Posttransfusion hepatitis C disease
b. Budd-Chiari syndrome
c. Hemolytic disease of newborn (HDN)
d. Transfusion-associated graft host disease
e. Bacterial infection due to bacterial contamination of platelets