Post-Term Pregnancy

Chapter 93 Post-Term Pregnancy






Clinical Case Problem 2 Managing a Post-Term Pregnancy


A 27-year-old G3P2002 presents at 41 weeks after an uncomplicated pregnancy. She declined early genetic testing. She is not contracting, and her cervix is 2/25%/−2. Fetal heart tones are reassuring.



6. You decide to manage this pregnancy expectantly. Which of the following is an appropriate antepartum surveillance strategy?







7. Maternal complications of post-term pregnancy include increased incidence of all of the following except






8. Fetal complications of post-term pregnancy include increased incidence of all of the following except







9. Immediate and future complications for a post-term neonate include increased incidence of all of the following except






10. BPP is performed at 42 days. Which of the following is not a BPP scoring element?







11. She is in vertex position. Her BPP shows the following: nonreactive NST, one episode of arm extension and flexion, one episode of spinal extension and flexion, rhythmic breathing movement for 10 seconds, and an amniotic fluid index (AFI) of 4 cm with the deepest single pocket of fluid measuring 1   cm. What is her BPP score?






12. Which of the following would be considered a reactive NST?


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Oct 1, 2016 | Posted by in GENERAL SURGERY | Comments Off on Post-Term Pregnancy

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