Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection

Chapter 45 Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection




Clinical Case Problem 1 A 25-Year-Old Pregnant Woman Is Referred to You by the Obstetrics/Gynecology Clinic Because Her Rapid HIV Test Result Is Positive


A 25-year-old woman presents for her first obstetrics/gynecology (Ob/Gyn) appointment for a routine initial visit, during which an OraQuick Advance rapid human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) test is performed, and the result is determined to be positive. She is gravida 1 para 0, and her last menstrual period was 20   weeks ago. She has no complaints and is exuberant about her pregnancy. She is in a monogamous relationship with her husband, and he presents to the Ob/Gyn appointment with her. She denies intravenous drug use (IVDU) or blood transfusion, and her only lifetime sexual partner is her husband. Her physical examination is unremarkable and consistent with an 18-week gestation. Her husband is taken to a separate room and denies IVDU or having sex with men, and he states that he has been monogamous with his wife for the past 5   years. He states that he is feeling well and has no complaints. He agrees to a rapid HIV test, the result of which is negative.



Select the best answer to the following questions




1. Regarding the patient’s positive test result, the currently recommended next step is to consider which of the following?







2. Regarding rapid HIV tests, which of the following statements is true?







3. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines for HIV testing, which of the following persons should not have an HIV test performed as part of his or her routine health care?







4. Which of the following statements regarding routine HIV testing is false according to the CDC guidelines for HIV testing?








Clinical Case Problem 2 A 25-Year-Old Man Presents for Initial HIV Evaluation


A 25-year-old white man was recently discharged from the hospital with a diagnosis of bacterial pneumonia. His past medical history is significant for a nephrectomy after a motor vehicle accident 10   years ago, aseptic meningitis 12   months ago, and one prior episode of bacterial pneumonia 5   months ago. His physical examination is remarkable for oral thrush. In the hospital, the results of an HIV EIA and Western blot returned positive. A CD4 T-lymphocyte cell count was 30, and HIV RNA (viral load) was more than 100,000 copies/mL. His Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test result returned positive (1:256), and a tuberculin skin test (TST) response measured 8   mm of induration. His hemoglobin was 11.7   g/dL, and he had a white blood cell count of 4000 cells/mm3 and a platelet count of 70,000 cells/mL.



5. All of the following should be performed as part of an initial workup for HIV infection except for which of the following laboratory tests?







6. Antiretroviral (ARV) medication should be recommended to this patient for which of the following reasons?







7. Which of the following conditions meets the criteria for an AIDS-defining opportunistic infection in this patient?







8. The patient and his partner present for a follow-up examination. They are concerned about HIV transmission from the patient to his partner. The partner recently tested HIV negative (HIV EIA). Which of the following is (are) reasonable recommendation(s) to give?







9. You review baseline laboratory results with the patient. Results are as follows: CMV IgG negative; T. gondii IgG positive; TST skin test response, 8   mm of induration; hepatitis A IgM negative and IgG positive; hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) negative and surface antibody (HBsAb) negative; and hepatitis C antibody (HCAb) positive. Which of the following actions should be taken?








Clinical Case Problem 3 A 32-Year-Old African American Woman Presents with an Acute Retroviral Syndrome (Seroconversion Reaction)


A 32-year-old African American woman comes to your office with a fever, lymphadenopathy, headache, and pharyngitis. Physical examination demonstrates oral thrush and hepatosplenomegaly. The patient reports unprotected sex with a bisexual man, and you suspect that this patient may have acute retroviral syndrome.



10. Which of the following signs and symptoms occur(s) with a frequency of more than 75% in this syndrome?







11. What laboratory test is most useful in establishing the diagnosis of an acute retroviral syndrome in this patient?







12. Regarding the acute retroviral syndrome, which of the following statements is true?







13. According to the CDC, which of the following messages regarding transmission of HIV from HIV-positive persons is true?







14. What is the most common cause of meningitis in a patient with advanced AIDS?







15. The ideal time to discontinue secondary prophylaxis is present in all except which of the following scenarios? Assume that all of the patients are receiving an effective, highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) regimen.







16. A 25-year-old asymptomatic person with HIV infection is diagnosed with chronic active hepatitis B. His CD4 cell count is 530 cells/mm3, and HIV RNA is 12,400 copies/mL. Which of the following treatments of hepatitis B is an appropriate option?







17. Which of the following metabolic complications is (are) implicated in the treatment of HIV infection with HAART?







18. Regarding drug interactions, which of the following statements is true?







19. Which of the following scenarios places the health care worker at the highest risk for HIV transmission?







20. A patient is diagnosed with disseminated cryptococcosis and has positive cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), blood, and urine cultures for Cryptococcus. His CD4 cell count is 10, and HIV RNA is more than 750,000 copies/mL. Which of the following statements is (are) true?







21. Which of the following AIDS-associated malignant neoplasms is least associated with immunosuppression (low CD4 cell count)?








Answers




1. b. All positive results of the HIV rapid test require a confirmatory Western blot or immunofluorescent assay (IFA). An HIV EIA is not required, but if it is performed and the results are negative, a confirmatory test is still required. For persons with a negative or indeterminate confirmatory test result, follow-up HIV testing should be repeated 4 weeks after the initial positive rapid HIV test result.


Before a rapid test is performed, patients should be counseled that they will receive the results at the same visit and, if positive, the meaning of a preliminary positive result. In the event of a positive rapid HIV test result, the provider should emphasize the importance of confirmatory testing. Providers should collect blood or saliva for the confirmatory test at the same visit and schedule an appointment for results of the confirmatory test. In 2006, the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved a new test, Aptima, for the diagnosis of primary HIV-1 infection as well as for confirmation of HIV-1 infection when tests for antibodies to HIV-1 are positive. Aptima is a qualitative nucleic acid test that detects the RNA of HIV-1 and may be used as an alternative to the Western blot for confirmation. Aptima may be helpful for diagnosis of early HIV-1 infections before antibodies have developed as well as in cases in which the Western blot is indeterminate. Consideration may be given as well for assessment of HIV proviral DNA.


The patient in Clinical Case Problem 1 should be counseled about the chance that her positive HIV rapid test result could be a false positive as well as about risk reduction behaviors while awaiting the results of the Western blot. The patient and her husband had confirmatory HIV tests performed, and the results of both were negative, including a repeated HIV test performed 4   weeks later.


2. b. Rapid HIV tests are an important tool to assess for early HIV infection in high-prevalence areas for high-risk individuals and for women in labor and delivery as well as in other nontraditional or high-risk settings. Rapid HIV tests have also been employed in emergency departments, inpatient hospital settings, and correctional facilities and for occupational exposures. In 2000, the CDC estimated that 31% of individuals who tested at a public sector testing site did not return for HIV test results.


Four rapid HIV tests have been approved by the FDA and share many common features. In all of these tests, HIV antigens are affixed to the test membrane or test strip. If the patient has HIV antibodies present, the antibodies will bind to the affixed HIV antigens. No instrumentation is required for these tests, and the tests are interpreted by visual inspection. When used according to the manufacturer’s guidelines, these tests range in sensitivity from 99.3% to 100% and in specificity from 98.6% to 99.9% and are similar to HIV EIA. False-positive results are known to occur (testing is designed to have greater sensitivity than specificity) and are measured by the positive predictive value (PPV), which is the probability that the patient has the disease if the test result is positive. PPV will decrease if the prevalence of HIV infection is low (less than 0.1% population prevalence) and increase if the prevalence of HIV infection is high (0.2% to 0.3% population prevalence). All positive rapid HIV tests require confirmatory Western blot or IFA. However, a negative rapid HIV test result does not require confirmation. False-negative rapid HIV test results occur rarely and may be seen during evolution of acute HIV infection and before HIV antibodies have developed. Individuals with HIV exposure within 3   months prior should be instructed to retest at 6, 12, and 24   weeks after HIV exposure.


3. c. According to the CDC guidelines, all persons between the ages of 13 and 64   years should be screened for HIV infection as part of routine clinical care unless HIV prevalence has been documented to be less than 0.1%. Patients seeking care for treatment of sexually transmitted diseases as well as patients initiating TB treatment should also receive an HIV test without consideration for prevalence. Annual HIV testing should be performed for all individuals with high-risk behavior for HIV infection; these include injection drug users and their partners, persons who exchange sex for drugs or money, men who have sex with men, and heterosexuals who have had more than one partner since their last HIV test.


4. e. In 2006, the CDC published new guidelines for HIV testing. The reasons for the new guidelines were to increase screening and early detection of HIV infection, to link HIV-infected patients to earlier care and prevention, and to reduce perinatal transmission. One rationale for implementing these new guidelines is the changing demographics of HIV-positive individuals. The rate of HIV infection is increasing in adolescents (15- to 24-year-olds), adults (50- to 64-year-olds), heterosexual men and women, members of racial and ethnic minorities, and individuals who live outside of metropolitan areas. Other reasons for the new HIV testing guidelines include prior success with universal testing of the blood supply and routine HIV testing in perinatal clinics. However, reduction in sexual transmission of HIV infection has been disappointing throughout the years, and it is in fact increasing in recent years. HIV-unknown individuals account for a disproportionate rate of sexual transmission compared with HIV-positive individuals who are aware of their diagnosis. Transmission has various mechanisms that are different by locale and region of the country. According to a meta-analysis of eight studies, HIV-positive individuals have been shown to reduce unprotected vaginal or anal intercourse by an average of 68%.


The CDC guidelines (2006) recommended HIV opt-out testing. Patients must be counseled in writing or verbally that an HIV test is planned and agree to the test. Oral and written material should be provided regarding the meaning of a positive and a negative HIV test result, and the patient should have an opportunity to ask questions. A signed HIV consent is no longer encouraged or recommended by the CDC. For patients declining the HIV test, documentation of the refusal should be recorded. Informed consent for an HIV test is no longer a recommendation by the CDC, but many states have legislation that requires informed consent. Some states are working on legislation to reconcile the differences between the CDC recommendations and current legislation. These issues are changing annually, dependent on regional legislative activity.


5. e. Initial laboratory evaluation of a new HIV-positive patient should include an HIV antibody test (if one is not available), CD4 T-lymphocyte cell count, plasma HIV RNA, complete blood count, chemistry profile, transaminase levels, blood urea nitrogen and creatinine concentrations, urinalysis, rapid plasma reagin or VDRL test, TST (unless there is a history of prior tuberculosis or positive skin test response), T. gondii IgG, hepatitis serologies (A, B, and C), and cervical Pap smear in women and anal Pap smear for men as well as other STD assessment. A genotype is preferred to evaluate the treatment-naive patient as presented here (or patients with early virologic failure or patients no longer receiving therapy). The CD4 T-lymphocyte cell count is part of the HIV staging system and identifies those patients at higher risk for life-threatening opportunistic infections (less than 200). Prophylaxis for opportunistic infections is based on results of the CD4 T-lymphocyte cell count. HIV RNA and T-cell counts have been shown to be prognostic indicators of HIV disease progression and are used to monitor response to ARV (HAART) medications. Fasting blood glucose and lipid levels are recommended for those at risk for cardiovascular disease and for baseline evaluation before initiation of ARV medications (especially protease inhibitors).


The HIV genotype test has become part of the initial HIV evaluation since transmission of HIV-resistant virus has been documented, occurs more frequently, and is associated with suboptimal response to initial ARV medication selection for presumed “wild type.” The genotype assays detect mutations in the reverse transcriptase and protease portions of the genome. These mutations predict resistance to specific antiretroviral drugs and can guide selection of initial HAART. HIV genotype tests should be performed for those with HIV RNA of more than 1000 copies/mL, even if ARV therapy will be deferred. (For severe cases of acute seroconversion reaction, empirical therapy may be considered and revised appropriately if necessary on receipt of laboratory results.) HIV genotyping should not be performed for those individuals with HIV RNA of less than 1000 copies/mL because amplification of the virus is unreliable. The International AIDS Society–USA maintains a list of significant resistance-associated mutations that can be reviewed at www.iasusa.org. The cryptococcal antigen test is a latex agglutination test that measures cryptococcal polysaccharide antigen and should be reserved for symptomatic patients.


6. c. ARV medications should be initiated for any HIV-positive person with any AIDS-defining illness or severe symptoms of HIV infection regardless of CD4 T-lymphocyte cell count or for any asymptomatic HIV-positive person with a CD4 T-lymphocyte cell count of less than 200 cells/mL. Current evidence suggests initiation of HAART independent of consideration of T-cell count (i.e., HIV virus = initiation of treatment). There is strong evidence of improved survival and reduced disease progression in this group of individuals. ARV medication should be offered to asymptomatic HIV-positive persons with a CD4 T-lymphocyte cell count of 201 to 350 cells/mL. The optimal time to begin ARV medications is as yet not fully known, but most specialists recommend beginning ARV therapy in HIV-positive persons with a CD4 T-lymphocyte cell count of 201 to 350 cells/mL at the least on the basis of criteria for the risk of disease progression as determined by observational cohorts. For asymptomatic HIV-positive persons with a CD4 T-lymphocyte cell count higher than 350 cells/mL and HIV RNA of more than 100,000 copies/mL, most clinicians have in the past deferred therapy; however, it is important to understand that this issue is in rapid and current flux, and it is necessary to individualize the decision to start ARV therapy because each situation is different. (Clinical tolerance to HIV infection is highly variable, from patients with exquisite and severe early conversion reactions to prompt AIDS to those who are “elite nonprogressors” who have been well for years or decades without treatment.)


Recurrent bacterial pneumonia is one of the AIDS-defining opportunistic infections and would be a hard indication to begin HAART regardless of T-cell criteria. In addition, the patient under consideration in the question has a CD4 T-lymphocyte cell count of 30, which strongly meets criteria to begin HAART as soon as realistically possible.


7. e. Oral thrush, aseptic meningitis, and thrombocytopenia may be examples of symptomatic HIV infection but are not AIDS-defining diagnoses. Other examples of symptomatic HIV infection include vulvovaginal candidiasis, cervical dysplasia, and constitutional symptoms such as fever or diarrhea for more than 1   month and the findings of oral leukoplakia. The AIDS-defining opportunistic infections are as follows:


Stay updated, free articles. Join our Telegram channel

Oct 1, 2016 | Posted by in GENERAL SURGERY | Comments Off on Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection

Full access? Get Clinical Tree

Get Clinical Tree app for offline access