Miscellaneous (Genitourinary, Head and Neck, Skin, Muscle, and Nervous System)
1M01
Key word: Characteristics of Donor Nephrectomy
Author: Matthew J. Weiss, MD
Editors: Robert A. Montgomery, MD, DPhil, FACS, and Dorry L. Segev, MD, PhD
A 27-year-old male with idiopathic renal failure on hemodialysis is awaiting a kidney transplant. Multiple family members and friends have presented to the transplant center for evaluation of possible live donor transplantation. The recipient’s brother volunteers to donate his kidney and is found to have a favorable human leukocyte antigen (HLA) match. Which of the following conditions is least likely to be considered a contraindication for live kidney donation?
View Answer
Answer: (E) Unilateral duplicated collecting system
Rationale:
Live kidney donors are exposed to medical and surgical risk for the benefit of another without a countervailing personal medical benefit. As such, it is particularly important to be as sure as possible that the risk to the donor is minimal. Centers perform routine screening on all potential donors that includes the presence of medical disease, infection, malignancy, and procedure-specific risks. Hypertension or diabetes puts donors at a higher risk of future kidney disease; all centers consider hypertension a relative contraindication (and some consider it an absolute contraindication), and almost all centers consider diabetes an absolute contraindication. HIV predisposes a patient to developing HIV-associated nephropathy and as a result is considered an absolute contraindication to donation; furthermore, transplantation of organs infected with HIV currently violates congressional law. Current drug dependency is also at least a relative contraindication for donation. As surgical techniques evolve, comfort with anatomic variations such as multiple blood vessels or duplicated urinary collecting systems is increasing; currently, a duplicated urinary collecting system is not considered a contraindication.
Reference:
Koller H, Mayer G. Evaluation of the living kidney donor. Nephrol Dial Transplant. 2004;19(Suppl 4):41-44.
1M02
Key word: Characteristics of Merkel Cell Cancer
Author: Michele A. Manahan, MD
Editors: Paul N. Manson, MD, FACS, Gedge D. Rosson, MD, and Pablo A. Baltodano, MD
Which of the following is a characteristic of Merkel cell carcinoma?
View Answer
Answer: (A) Early distant metastases
Rationale:
Merkel cell tumors are histologically similar to basal cell carcinomas but are both locally aggressive and commonly demonstrate distant metastases to nodes, viscera, and bone. On hematoxylin and eosin (H and E) staining, they appear as deeply basophilic cell clusters in the dermis with nuclei that do not demonstrate severe atypia. They may stain positive for enolase, allowing differentiation between Merkel cell tumors and basal cell carcinomas. In addition, using keratin antibodies, a distinct perinuclear dot pattern is seen with aggregation of antibodies at the nuclear border. CT or MRI should be used to evaluate for distant metastatic disease. They are difficult to treat, but common therapy consists of surgery (with 2- to 3-cm margins when possible), elective regional lymphadenectomy or sentinel lymph node biopsy, and radiation. Radiation therapy is useful as adjuvant therapy for both local and regional control and can also be used when surgery is not an option. Chemotherapy is currently under investigation.
References:
Dinh V, Feun L, Elgart G, et al. Merkel cell carcinomas. Hematol Oncol Clin North Am. 2007;21(3):527-544.
Stal S, Spira M. Basal and squamous cell carcinoma of the skin. In: Aston SJ, Beasley RW, Thorne CHM, eds. Grabb and Smith’s Plastic Surgery. 5th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott-Raven; 1997:117.
1M03
Key word: Characteristics of Lymphatic Malformation of the Skin
Author: Michele A. Manahan, MD
Editor: Anthony P. Tufaro, DDS, MD, FACS
Which of the following is a characteristic of a cutaneous lymphatic malformation?
View Answer
Answer: (B) Cystic mass with overlying vesicles
Rationale:
Cutaneous lymphatic malformations often present as cystic masses with overlying vesicles. A lymphatic mass would not be associated with telangiectasias, it would not be nodular or pulsatile, and it would not be fixed to underlying tissues.
Reference:
Mulliken J. Vascular anomalies. In: Aston SJ, Beasley RW, Thorne CHM, eds. Grabb and Smith’s Plastic Surgery. 5th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott-Raven; 1997:199.
1M04
Key word: Treatment of Inadvertent Intraoperative Ureteral Injury
Author: Eric S. Weiss, MD, MPH
Editor: Arthur L. Burnett, MD, MBA, FACS
During resection of a pelvic tumor, the left ureter is inadvertently transected below the level of the pelvic brim. The immediate treatment of this problem is:
View Answer
Answer: (E) Ureterocystostomy
Rationale:
Ureteral injuries are a common and feared complication of pelvic surgery. The common ways that ureters are injured include crushing injury by inadvertent clamping, electrocautery injury, and inadvertent resection as part of a specimen. In cases where the ureter is ligated, pressure hydronephrosis develops which can lead to urosepsis. In addition, the pressure can lead to necrosis of the remaining ureteral wall, which can rupture and allow urine to freely extravasate into the abdomen leading to urinoma formation.
The treatment of ureteral injury depends on the injury type. For minor injuries, where there is a partial transection, the ureter can be closed primarily over a stent. For complete transections, in which the ureter is completely transected, primary closure (ureteroureterostomy) should be attempted. In cases of injury below the pelvic brim, ureteroureterostomy can be difficult and a ureterocystostomy is the procedure of choice to re-establish continuity with the urinary tract.
Reference:
Wessells H, McAninch JW. Injuries to the urogenital tract. In: Souba WW, Fink MP, Jurkovich GJ, Kaiser LR, Pearce WH, Pemberton JH, Soper NJ, eds. ACS Surgery: Principles and Practice. 4th ed. New York, NY: WebM.D.; 2004:962-964.
1M05
Key word: Nerve Injury Resulting from Calf Fasciotomy
Author: Robert A. Meguid, MD, MPH
Editor: Anthony P. Tufaro, DDS, MD, FACS
A 32-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after his left leg was pinned between two cars. Upon examination, his left leg is swollen and tense below the knee and you suspect compartment syndrome. Which nerve is most commonly injured during fasciotomy of the lower leg?
View Answer
Answer: (D) Superficial peroneal nerve
Rationale:
Fasciotomy of the four compartments of the lower leg may be performed through one or two skin incisions, although the two-incision technique is more common. The lateral incision is placed 2 cm anterior to the head of the fibula. Through this incision, the anterior and lateral compartments are released. The second incision is placed 2 cm posterior to the posterior medial edge of the tibia, releasing the superior and deep posterior compartments. Both incisions should span the length of the leg. The correct placement of these two incisions will leave an 8- to 10-cm skin bridge that will be unlikely to necrose.
Injury to the superficial peroneal nerve may occur while performing the lateral fasciotomy, as this nerve travels relatively superficially along the fascia between the anterior and lateral compartments.
The tibial and deep peroneal nerves are both deep to the incisions needed for fascial release, and less likely to be transected. The saphenous nerve travels along the lateral border of the tibia, and as such runs parallel and anterior to the posterior skin incision. The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve innervates the lateral aspect of the thigh.
References:
Blackbourne LH. Surgical anatomy. In: Fleischer KJ, ed. Advanced Surgical Recall. Philadelphia, PA: Williams and Wilkins; 1995: 47.
Netter FH. Atlas of Human Anatomy. 2nd ed. Plates 481-487. East Hanover, NJ: Novartis; 1997.
Shackford SR, Rich NH. Peripheral vascular injury. In: Feliciano DV, Moore EE, Mattox KL, eds. Trauma. 3rd ed. Stamford, CT: Appleton and Lange; 1996:841.
1M06
Key word: Treatment of Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Lower Lip
Author: Robert A. Meguid, MD, MPH
Editor: Anthony P. Tufaro, DDS, MD, FACS
A 56-year-old man presents to your clinic with a 5-mm wide lesion confined to the middle of his lower lip. Biopsy confirms squamous cell carcinoma. What is the most appropriate management?
View Answer
Answer: (C) Surgical resection with 1-cm margin and primary repair
Rationale:
Surgical resection alone is appropriate for management of T1 lesions on the lips. However, radiation therapy alone has an equal outcome. A 1-cm margin should be taken and primary repair performed. Five-year survival is greater than 90%. If a T1 lesion is located in the labial commissure (corner of the lips), it can be treated with resection and immediate reconstruction. Radiation may be used as the sole modality of treatment for commissural lesions but presents unique challenges.
T2 and greater stage lesions on the lips should be treated with surgical excision and immediate reconstruction, followed by radiation therapy.
Of note, mental nerve invasion is associated with lymph node involvement in 80% of cases. The 5-year survival for these is 35%.
Staging of oral cavity tumors:
Primary Tumor (T) stage:
Tis: Carcinoma in situ
T1: Tumor ≤2 cm
T2: Tumor >2 cm but ≤4 cm
T3: Tumor >4 cm
T4: Tumor invading adjacent structures
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Reference:
Newkirk KA, Holsinger FC. Cancers of the head and neck. In: Feig BW, Ching CD, eds. The M.D. Anderson Surgical Oncology Handbook. 5th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams and Wilkins; 2012.
1M07
Key word: Nerve Injury Associated with Anterior Dislocation of the Humerus
Author: Robert A. Meguid, MD, MPH
Editor: Frank J. Frassica, MD
A 17-year-old male presents to the emergency department after a right shoulder injury sustained while playing football. Plain radiographs reveal the humeral head displaced medial to the glenoid fossa. Which nerve is most likely injured in this type of dislocation?
View Answer
Answer: (A) Axillary nerve
Rationale:
Anterior dislocation of the humeral head can occur when force is applied to an abducted arm, further extending it. These are classic “football injuries.” Anterior-posterior shoulder radiographs reveal the humeral head displaced inferior to the coracoid process and medial to the glenoid fossa. This injury is associated with tear of the anterior shoulder joint capsule, compression fracture of the humeral head posteriolaterally, and possible damage to the axillary nerve as it is stretched around the humeral neck. Axillary nerve deficit presents as sensory loss over the anterolateral aspect of the proximal shoulder.
Recurrent dislocations should be treated with surgical correction. Posterior dislocation is not associated with a specific nerve injury but with seizures. The sural nerve innervates the posterolateral aspect of the lower leg.
References:
Duthie RB, Hoaglund FT. Orthopaedics. In: Schwartz SI, Shires GT, Spencer FC, eds. Principles of Surgery. 5th ed. New York, NY: McGraw-Hill; 1989:1948-1949.
Netter FH. Atlas of Human Anatomy. 2nd ed. East Hanover, NJ: Novartis; 1997: plates 443, 445.
1M08
Key word: Donor-site Healing in Split-thickness Skin Grafts
Author: Justin B. Maxhimer, MD
Editors: Paul N. Manson, MD, FACS, Gedge D. Rosson, MD, Anne J.W. Tong, MBBS, and Pablo A. Baltodano, MD
A 32-year-old female requires a split-thickness skin graft after being involved in a car accident. A 12- × 6-cm site is harvested from her lateral thigh and is implanted on her scalp without complications. The healing rate at the donor site is most related to:
View Answer
Answer: (B) Epithelial appendages and thickness of graft
Rationale:
Split-thickness skin grafts may be harvested from any surface of the body, but sites should be chosen that are easily concealed in clothing. Common sites include the upper anterior and lateral thigh. The buttocks may be used as a donor site, but the patient may require assistance caring for the wound. The scalp is used for resurfacing areas of the face too large for a full-thickness graft and is especially useful in severe burns with limited donor-site availability. Because of its thickness, scalp skin may be repeatedly harvested with almost no risk of alopecia or subsequent hair growth at the recipient site. For hand wounds, the upper inner arm is a cosmetically appealing donor site.
The donor site also must be dressed appropriately at the conclusion of a skin graft operation. Full-thickness donor sites closed primarily are dressed as are other wounds closed primarily. For split-thickness graft donor sites, achieving hemostasis can be facilitated with the application of a moist gauze containing epinephrine solution.
Donor sites for split-thickness grafts heal spontaneously from epithelial cells remaining in epithelial appendages within the dermis and at the wound edges. Healing begins within 24 hours of harvesting, and the rate of healing is directly proportional to the number of epithelial appendages remaining and inversely proportional to the thickness of graft harvested. When the epidermis has regenerated, it may be reharvested; however, each harvest may remove a portion of dermis that is not regenerated. The initial epithelium that is regenerated is very delicate and is easily disrupted by dressing changes. This is rationale to use a semi-occlusive dressing that does not need to be removed until healing is complete. Finally, hyperpigmentation may persist for many months following donor-site healing, and some individuals may develop hypertrophic scarring or even keloids at the site.
References:
Kilinc H, Sensoz O, Ozdemir R, et al. Which dressing for split-thickness skin graft donor sites? Ann Plast Surg. 2001;46(4): 409-414.
Petruzzelli GJ, Johnson JT. Skin grafts. Otolaryngol Clin North Am. 1994;27(1):25-37.
1M09
Key word: Characteristics of Split-thickness Skin Grafts
Author: Robert A. Meguid, MD, MPH
Editor: Anthony P. Tufaro, DDS, MD, FACS
Which of the following characteristics is an advantage of full-thickness skin grafts (FTSGs) over split-thickness skin grafts (STSGs)?
View Answer
Answer: (E) Lower incidence of contractures
Rationale:
FTSGs have the advantage of lower incidence of contractures compared with STSGs. In addition, FTSGs from similar areas as the defect will afford superior color match compared to STSGs. For instance, periauricular skin serves as a close color match for a nasal defect. However, FTSGs have less resistance to infection than STSGs, and are generally less useful for coverage of large areas. Due to the nature of FTSGs, which have a higher nutritional demand and fewer cut vessels with which to absorb nutrients from the wound bed, they require more blood supply than STSGs. STSGs are generally more useful for coverage of larger wounds, bacterial-contaminated surfaces, and granulation bed.
Reference:
Bollinger RR. Autotransplantation. In: Sabiston DC, Lyerly HK, eds. Textbook of Surgery. 15th ed. Philadelphia, PA: W.B. Saunders; 1997:497-498.
1M10
Key word: Treatment of Metastatic Ovarian Cancer
Author: Susanna M. Nazarian, MD, PhD
Editor: Anne O. Lidor, MD, MPH
You are performing a laparoscopic cholecystectomy on a 64-year-old woman with a history of cholelithiasis and vague abdominal pain. As you insert the camera through the supraumbilical trocar, you are surprised to find white cake-like tumor spreading from the left pelvis across much of the large intestine. You should:
View Answer
Answer: (D) Take a biopsy of the tumor, close, and await the pathology report to plan open surgery
Rationale:
Ovarian cancer is the number one cause of death from a gynecologic malignancy in North America. Part of this fatality stems from late diagnosis, as most women present only after the cancer has spread well beyond their reproductive systems. Some cases are discovered only incidentally, as in this scenario.
In the setting described, it would be wisest to obtain a biopsy and end the operation. The surgical treatment of metastatic ovarian cancer mandates maximal debulking and possible multiorgan resection, as the extent of surgical debulking directly affects patient curability. For this reason, it is advisable to close the patient and discuss the implications and risks of the treatment, and possibilities such as permanent colostomy. The patient should also be referred to a gynecologic oncologist for primary surgery, as they are more experienced with disease-specific considerations such as the placement of an intraperitoneal port for intraperitoneal chemotherapy.
Intraoperatively, the goal of surgical debulking should be the removal of all visible tumor. If all visible tumor cannot be safely excised, then a surgical objective of leaving no residual tumor nodule measuring >1 cm in maximal diameter should be attempted. For women with advanced-stage epithelial ovarian cancer, overall survival is inversely proportional to the maximal diameter of residual disease, with patients left with no gross residual having the best survival outcome and chance of cure. Radical debulking may entail multiple bowel resections and removal of all pelvic contents en masse in an extraperitoneal, ventral-to-dorsal technique: Bladder, uterus, adnexae, and rectosigmoid. Splenectomy, omentectomy, hepatic resection, and diaphragm stripping may be warranted.
Some surgeons advocate second-look procedures to assess for further tumor, although the practice is controversial.
Some surgeons advocate second-look procedures to assess for further tumor, although the practice is controversial.
Reference:
Cannistra SA, Gershenson DM, Recht A. Ovarian cancer, fallopian tube carcinoma, and peritoneal carcinoma. In: DeVita VT, Lawrence TS, Rosenberg SA, eds. Cancer Principles and Practice of Oncology. 9th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott, Williams and Wilkins; 2011:1368-1391.
1M11
Key word: Treatment of Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH Secretion (SIADH)
Author: Jonathan A. Forbes, MD
Editor: Martin A. Makary, MD, MPH
A 22-year-old male (65 kg) is seen in the emergency department after a motorcycle accident that resulted in significant head and maxillofacial trauma. Following initial evaluation and stabilization, he is admitted to the intensive care unit with lactated Ringer (LR) solution running at 125 mL/hr. During the first 60 hours of his stay, his urine output gradually declines to 25 mL/hr and his serum sodium drops from 136 to 127 mEq/L. His vital signs remain stable. Urine osmolarity is found to be 548 mOsm/L. Which of the following is the next best intervention?
View Answer
Answer: (B) Convert his fluids from LR to 3% normal saline
Rationale:
This young man is suffering from acute onset of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion (SIADH). This disorder is characterized by the unsolicited release of ADH independent of the body’s usual mechanisms for osmostat regulation. Acute onset of SIADH results in hyponatremia secondary to free water retention. Chronic SIADH results in hyponatremia secondary to free water retention and eventual volume expansion and natriuresis. SIADH does not affect the body’s ability to regulate sodium handling and intravascular volume.
Treatment of SIADH is centered upon free water restriction and, when necessary, salt administration. Careful monitoring of fluid status, urine output, and serum sodium is essential, such that over- or under-correction does not ensue. In the asymptomatic hyponatremic patient with chronic SIADH, free water restriction is the mainstay of therapy and is often sufficient by itself. In refractory cases of chronic SIADH, daily salt tablets and a loop diuretic (which lowers urine osmolality by direct interference with the countercurrent concentrating mechanism) are often the next best step. In the rare patient with chronic SIADH in whom the aforementioned interventions are not effective, agents that act directly on the collecting tubule to diminish its responsiveness to ADH—including demeclocycline (300 to 600 mg BID) and lithium—are considered.
In both acute and chronic SIADH, it is important to remember that—as a rough approximation—the osmolarity of fluid administered enterally and parenterally must exceed that of the urine for the serum sodium concentration to rise. The trauma patient described above is suffering from acute
onset of SIADH and is dependent on parenteral replacement of electrolytes and fluid. We are told his urine osmolarity is 548 mOsm/L. From this (remembering sodium handling and volume regulation remain intact), we can roughly approximate that the electrolytes he receives in every liter of LR (osmolarity of 274 mOsm/L) will be excreted in approximately 500 mL of urine. Thus, for every liter of LR he receives, he will retain 500 cm3 of free water at his present level of ADH release. Converting his IVF to 3% normal saline will provide him with 1,026 mOsm of electrolytes (513 mEq each of sodium and chloride) in every liter of fluid he is given. Assuming ADH release and urine osmolarity remain constant, he will excrete this volume of electrolytes in approximately 1,872 cm3 of fluid. In this manner, he will lose 872 cm3 of free water with every liter bolus of 3% normal saline he receives and his serum sodium level will rise appropriately.
onset of SIADH and is dependent on parenteral replacement of electrolytes and fluid. We are told his urine osmolarity is 548 mOsm/L. From this (remembering sodium handling and volume regulation remain intact), we can roughly approximate that the electrolytes he receives in every liter of LR (osmolarity of 274 mOsm/L) will be excreted in approximately 500 mL of urine. Thus, for every liter of LR he receives, he will retain 500 cm3 of free water at his present level of ADH release. Converting his IVF to 3% normal saline will provide him with 1,026 mOsm of electrolytes (513 mEq each of sodium and chloride) in every liter of fluid he is given. Assuming ADH release and urine osmolarity remain constant, he will excrete this volume of electrolytes in approximately 1,872 cm3 of fluid. In this manner, he will lose 872 cm3 of free water with every liter bolus of 3% normal saline he receives and his serum sodium level will rise appropriately.
The presence or absence of neurologic symptoms secondary to hyponatremia and the severity of these symptoms will help to determine the goal rate of correction. Overly rapid correction should be avoided, as it can result in central pontine myelinolysis.
References:
Adrogue HJ, Madias NE. Hyponatremia. N Engl J Med. 2000; 342:1581-1589.
Decaux G, Waterlot Y, Genette F, et al. Treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone with furosemide. N Engl J Med. 1981;304:329-330.
Forrest JN, Cox M, Hong C, et al. Superiority of demeclocycline over lithium in the treatment of chronic syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone. N Engl J Med. 1978;298:173-177.
Rose BD. New approach to disturbances in the plasma sodium concentration. Am J Med. 1986;81:1033-1040.
Rose BD, Post TW. Clinical Physiology of Acid-Base and Electrolyte Disorders. 5th ed. New York, NY: McGraw-Hill; 2001:729-733.
Verbalis JG. Pathogenesis of hyponatremia in an experimental model of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis. Am J Physiol. 1994;267:1617-1625.
1M12
Key word: Treatment of a Supracondylar Fracture of the Humerus in a Child
Author: Eric S. Weiss, MD, MPH
Editor: Frank J. Frassica, MD
The appropriate treatment for an 8-year-old with a completely displaced supracondylar fracture of the humerus (Gartland type III) is:
View Answer
Answer: (B) Closed reduction and internal fixation
Rationale:
Unlike adults, supracondylar fractures are common in children. A supracondylar fracture is located on the humerus, proximal to the growth plate. Management of these fractures depends on the severity of the injury. The Gartland classification exists for characterization of supracondylar fractures. Specifically, Gartland type I fractures are nondisplaced, Gartland type II fractures are partially displaced, and Gartland type III are totally displaced. For nondisplaced fractures, conservative treatment (casting and immobilization) is sufficient. However, for displaced fractures, closed reduction and percutaneous pin fixation in the operating room is necessary to ensure a proper reduction and stabilization.
Reference:
Moehring HD. Orthopedic surgery. In: Mulholland MW, Lillemoe KD, Doherty GM, Maier RV, Upchurch GR, eds. Greenfield’s Surgery: Scientific Principles & Practice. 4th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams and Wilkins; 2006:2030-2032.
1M13
Key word: Most Important Component in the Glasgow Coma Scale
Author: Eric S. Weiss, MD, MPH
Editors: Edward E. Cornwell III, MD, FACS, WACS, FCCM, and Albert Chi, MD
On initial assessment the most important predictor of return of function in a patient with a severe head injury is:
View Answer
Answer: (D) Poor motor score component of the GCS