Cardiovascular and Respiratory
2C01
Key word: Diagnosis of Pericardial Tamponade after Stab Wounds to the Chest
Author: Timothy J. George, MD
Editor: Glenn J.R. Whitman, MD
A 22-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a stab wound in the right sixth intercostal space just lateral to the sternal border. His blood pressure is 90/70 mm Hg, his pulse is 130 beats per minute, and he complains of shortness of breath. His trachea is midline and his neck veins are bulging. The most likely diagnosis is:
View Answer
Answer: (B) Pericardial tamponade
Rationale:
In pericardial tamponade, the pericardium fills with fluid, often blood. Once the pericardium is maximally stretched, the building pressure compresses the heart itself, decreasing diastolic compliance and thus compromising venous return. This results in hypotension and also distention of neck veins from the elevated central venous pressure.
In penetrating trauma, cardiac injury should be suspected when any penetrating injury occurs in “the box,” a rectangle bordered superiorly by the clavicles, inferiorly by the costal margins, and laterally by the midclavicular line. However, while cardiac injury must be suspected, patients who are hypotensive and short of breath with penetrating thoracic trauma can also have other injuries. In this case, while the dyspnea is consistent with pneumothorax and pulmonary contusion, the bulging neck veins are not associated with either entity. Moreover, patients with a tension pneumothorax are likely to have tracheal deviation, and pulmonary contusions are more commonly associated with blunt trauma. While both tracheobronchial injury and esophageal injury are possible, they are less likely, given the clinical presentation.
References:
Nagy KK, Lohmann C, Kim DO, et al. Role of echocardiography in the diagnosis of occult penetrating cardiac injury. J Trauma. 1995;38(6):859-862.
Spodick DH. Acute cardiac tamponade. N Engl J Med. 2003;349(7):684-690.
2C02
Key word: Treatment of Postoperative Arrhythmia
Author: Timothy J. George, MD
Editor: Glenn J.R. Whitman, MD
On postoperative day 3 after a classic Whipple procedure, a 54-year-old man is found to be lethargic and tachycardic with a pulse of 180 beats per minute and blood pressure of 50 mm Hg/palpable. An EKG reveals an irregularly irregular rhythm. What is the most appropriate treatment of his arrhythmia?
View Answer
Answer: (E) Synchronized cardioversion
Rationale:
New onset atrial fibrillation is a common complication after surgery, particularly following cardiothoracic surgery. After abdominal surgery, atrial fibrillation generally occurs on postoperative days 2 to 5 when the patient is no longer requiring fluid resuscitation and is beginning to mobilize extravascular fluid. This fluid mobilization results in atrial distention, which can result in atrial fibrillation.
Atrial fibrillation classically results in an irregularly irregular rhythm. Hemodynamic stability is dependent on the ventricular response. Patients with rapid ventricular response can achieve elevated heart rates resulting in hemodynamic instability.
In patients with new onset atrial fibrillation who are hemodynamically unstable and manifesting signs of organ hypoperfusion, as in this vignette, urgent synchronized cardioversion is indicated. While there are many antiarrhythmic drugs than can cause chemical cardioversion, electrical cardioversion is most prudent in hemodynamically unstable patients.
In hemodynamically stable patients, initial treatment with antiarrhythmics is indicated. In the acute setting, simply rate control will lead to conversion to sinus rhythm in close to 50% of cases. However, rate control without conversion to sinus rhythm may require long-term anticoagulation in selected patients. Therefore, in patients with new onset atrial fibrillation, early elective cardioversion to obviate the need for any anticoagulation is reasonable. If the duration of atrial fibrillation exceeds 48 hours (or is unknown), an atrial thrombus needs to be ruled out with echocardiography before cardioversion to minimize the risk of embolization.
Amiodarone is a newer and effective drug for chemical cardioversion. Metoprolol does not facilitate cardioversion but can be effective for rate control. However, it is also likely to lower blood pressure. Atropine will increase the heart rate and is inappropriate. A fluid bolus may temporarily help with
blood pressure, but fluid overload is also a likely cause of this patient’s atrial fibrillation. After cardioversion and stabilization, diuresis is likely indicated.
blood pressure, but fluid overload is also a likely cause of this patient’s atrial fibrillation. After cardioversion and stabilization, diuresis is likely indicated.
References:
Gage BF, Waterman AD, Shannon W, et al. Validation of clinical classification schemes for predicting stroke: results from the National Registry of Atrial Fibrillation. JAMA. 2001;285(22):2864-2870.
Roy D, Talajic M, Nattel S, et al. Rhythm control versus rate control for atrial fibrillation and heart failure. N Engl J Med. 2008;358:2667-2677.
Wyse DG, Waldo AL, DiMarco JP, et al. A comparison of rate control and rhythm control in patients with atrial fibrillation. New Engl J Med. 2002;347:1825-1833.
Zimetbaum P. Amiodarone for atrial fibrillation. New Engl J Med. 2007;356:935-941.
2C03
Key word: Anesthetic Improving Outcomes after Rib Fractures
Author: Clinton D. Kemp, MD
Editor: Stephen C. Yang, MD, FACS, FCCP
A 48-year-old male painter falls from a ladder and presents to the emergency room. Primary and secondary surveys are notable for left-sided chest pain on palpation. He is splinting with deep inspiration. Radiography demonstrates nondisplaced fifth to ninth rib fractures. Which of the following options for pain control has been shown to provide superior outcomes in patients with rib fractures?
View Answer
Answer: (A) Epidural anesthesia
Rationale:
Rib fractures are common following blunt traumatic injury to the chest. The severity of injury is proportional to the number of ribs fractured. The presence of three or more fractured ribs is associated with a higher incidence of underlying solid organ injuries and should prompt referral to a dedicated trauma center for evaluation and management. The finding of rib fractures should alert the clinician to the possibility of pneumothorax, hemothorax, and pulmonary contusion, and consideration must be given to admission of these patients for observation, pain control, and aggressive pulmonary toilet.
Even in the absence of underlying injuries, patients with rib fractures are at increased risk for development of atelectasis, pneumonia, and even respiratory failure due to splinting from pain and poor respiratory effort. Avoidance of the development of respiratory failure and intubation decreases the risk of pneumonia in these patients. The use of binders or taping of the chest for comfort interferes with proper pulmonary toilet by limiting chest excursion during inspiration and should be avoided.
Inadequate analgesia among patients with rib fractures is associated with hypoventilation, atelectasis, decreased clearance of secretions, and respiratory failure. Methods for pain management include oral and intravenous opioids, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents, local therapy (intercostal nerve blockade, pleural blockade), and epidural-based therapies. The specific regimen is determined by the clinical scenario and patient response to a trial of pain management therapy.
The only method that has been demonstrated to have an impact on clinical outcomes following rib fractures is epidural anesthesia, typically delivered as a synergistic combination of opioids and local anesthetics. This method of pain relief is associated with improved pulmonary mechanics (increased
vital capacity and negative inspiratory force), increased oxygenation as measured by partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2), and improved ventilation as measured by decreased partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2). In addition, epidural use leads to decreased ventilator dependence and decreased rates of nosocomial pneumonia.
vital capacity and negative inspiratory force), increased oxygenation as measured by partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2), and improved ventilation as measured by decreased partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2). In addition, epidural use leads to decreased ventilator dependence and decreased rates of nosocomial pneumonia.
Reference:
Livingston DH, Hauser CJ. Chest wall and lung. In: Feliciano DV, Mattox KL, Moore EE, eds. Trauma. 6th ed. New York, NY: McGraw Hill Professional; 2007:525-552.
2C04
Key word: Best Treatment of Aortic Stenosis
Author: Timothy J. George, MD
Editor: William A. Baumgartner, MD
An otherwise healthy 54-year-old male presents with stable angina. Echocardiography reveals an ejection fraction of 50% with an aortic valve area of 0.9 cm2, a mean pressure gradient of 45 mm Hg, and a jet velocity of 4.5 m/sec. Which of the following is the best definitive therapy?
View Answer
Answer: (A) Aortic valve replacement (AVR)
Rationale:
The timing of aortic valve intervention is largely determined by two factors: The severity of the stenosis and the presence or absence of symptoms. Aortic stenosis is graded as follows.
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Patients with severe aortic stenosis and symptoms (classically angina, syncope, or dyspnea) should undergo AVR. Asymptomatic patients with severe aortic stenosis can be followed closely unless they develop symptoms during exercise testing, have an ejection fraction <50%, have severe valvular calcification, have rapid progression of their stenosis, or are undergoing another cardiac operation.
There is no indication for medical management alone in patients with severe aortic stenosis who are healthy enough to undergo surgery. Percutaneous balloon valvotomy might be reasonable as a bridge to AVR in a hemodynamically unstable patient or in a patient with severe comorbidities and prohibitively high surgical risk. Neither is the case in this vignette, however. Transcatheter AVR is currently indicated in the United States only for clinical trials in patients at very high surgical risk. Traditional open AVR remains the standard of care. There is no indication for orthotopic heart transplantation in this patient.
Reference:
Bonow RO, Carabello BA, Chatterjee K, et al. 2008 focused update incorporated into the ACC/AHA 2006 guidelines for the management of patients with valvular heart disease. Circulation. 2008;118(15):e523-e661.
2C05
Key word: Changes in Cardiac Physiology during Pregnancy
Author: Timothy J. George, MD
Editor: Glenn J.R. Whitman, MD
During pregnancy, a woman’s blood volume:
View Answer
Answer: (E) Increases by 30% to 50%
Rationale:
During pregnancy, women experience an expansion of plasma volume and a concomitant but less substantial increase in red cell volume resulting in a modest hematocrit reduction. Total plasma volume increases by 1.1 to 1.6 L resulting in a total plasma volume of 4.7 to 5.2 L by 34 weeks of gestation. Concomitantly, red blood cell mass increases by 15% to 30%. The resulting physiologic anemia results in decreased blood viscosity, which aids in placental perfusion and lower cardiac work. The increased plasma volume also provides some reserve against peripartum blood loss and increases cardiac output to aid in placental perfusion.
References:
Lund CJ, Donovan JC. Blood volume during pregnancy. Significance of plasma and red cell volumes. Am J Obstet Gynecol. 1967;98:394-403.
Pritchard JA. Changes in the blood volume during pregnancy and delivery. Anesthesiology. 1965;26:393-399.
Ueland K. Maternal cardiovascular dynamics. VII. Intrapartum blood volume changes. Am J Obstet Gynecol. 1976;126:671-677.
2C06
Key word: Diagnosis of Alveolar Hypoventilation
Author: Clinton D. Kemp, MD
Editor: Glenn J.R. Whitman, MD
A 70-year-old man with a 1-cm non-small-cell adenocarcinoma of his right upper lobe presents to your office for evaluation for resection of his tumor. He is thin, and although comfortable, he is breathing in a shallow and somewhat rapid fashion. Spirometry demonstrates an obstructive defect with a forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)/forced vital capacity (FVC) of less than 70% of predicted and an FEV1 of less than 50% of predicted. Which of the following regarding alveolar ventilation is true?
Alveolar hypoventilation results in an increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide and hypercapnia
There is a direct relationship between alveolar ventilation and the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood
View Answer
Answer: (A) Alveolar hypoventilation results in an increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide and hypercapnia
Rationale:
Alveolar ventilation is defined as the gas exchange between the external environment and the alveoli and is a process which allows oxygen in the air to be delivered to the lungs during inspiration and carbon dioxide from the systemic circulation to be eliminated during expiration. There is no method for direct measurement of alveolar ventilation; rather it must be determined by measuring the tidal volume, respiratory rate, and the anatomic dead space.
There is a direct relationship between the partial pressure of oxygen and alveolar ventilation such that increases in alveolar ventilation will cause an increase in the partial pressure of oxygen, but this will eventually reach a plateau as the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is maximized. There is an inverse relationship between alveolar ventilation and the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood. As ventilation increases, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide will decrease.
Alveolar hypoventilation exists when there is inadequate ventilation for the normal removal of carbon dioxide from the systemic circulation, leading to an increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide and hypercapnia. Eventually, this hypoventilation can also lead to a decreased partial pressure of oxygen and hypoxemia.
Alveolar hypoventilation can be acute or chronic and congenital or acquired. Congenital causes include congenital
central hypoventilation syndrome (CCHS) or Ondine’s curse. Acquired causes include obesity hypoventilation syndrome (OHS), chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), neuromuscular disorders (myasthenia gravis, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, muscular dystrophy, and Guillain-Barré syndrome), or chest wall deformities (kyphoscoliosis). Often these patients can compensate for their alveolar hypoventilation by increasing their respiratory rate, effectively lowering the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood and correcting their hypercapnia and hypoxia. These compensatory mechanisms can cause fatigue, however, and eventual respiratory failure may ensue.
central hypoventilation syndrome (CCHS) or Ondine’s curse. Acquired causes include obesity hypoventilation syndrome (OHS), chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), neuromuscular disorders (myasthenia gravis, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, muscular dystrophy, and Guillain-Barré syndrome), or chest wall deformities (kyphoscoliosis). Often these patients can compensate for their alveolar hypoventilation by increasing their respiratory rate, effectively lowering the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood and correcting their hypercapnia and hypoxia. These compensatory mechanisms can cause fatigue, however, and eventual respiratory failure may ensue.
Reference:
Levitsky MG, ed. Alveolar ventilation. Pulmonary Physiology. 7th ed. New York, NY: McGraw Hill; 2007:54-84.
2C07
Key word: Indication for CABG for Chronic Angina
Author: Timothy J. George, MD
Editor: William A. Baumgartner, MD
A 57-year-old male presents to clinic with chronic stable angina that limits his ability to climb stairs and perform activities of daily living. Cardiac catheterization reveals a 70% occlusion in the left anterior descending artery, an 80% occlusion in the left circumflex artery, and an 85% occlusion in the right coronary artery with an ejection fraction of 50%. What is the recommended management of this patient?
View Answer
Answer: (A) Coronary artery bypass grafting
Rationale:
Asymptomatic patients and patients with stable angina have similar criteria for coronary artery bypass grafting. Indications include: (1) Left main coronary artery disease (≥50% stenosis of the left coronary artery); (2) left main coronary equivalent disease (≥70% stenosis of the proximal left anterior descending artery and the circumflex artery); (3) triple vessel disease (≥70% occlusion of the left anterior descending artery, the circumflex artery, and the right coronary artery); (4) proximal left anterior descending artery stenosis with single or double vessel disease with a left ventricular ejection fraction <50%; or (5) single or double vessel disease without proximal left anterior descending artery stenosis but with large areas of viable at-risk myocardium.
In patients who meet these criteria, coronary artery bypass grafting is thought to be superior to medical management and stenting. In patients with stable angina who do not meet these criteria, bypass grafting is indicated only if the patient has severely disabling angina despite maximal medical therapy. Transmyocardial laser revascularization is experimental at present.
Reference:
Chan V, Selke FW, Ruel M. Coronary artery bypass grafting. In: Selke FW, del Nido PJ, Swanson SJ, eds. Sabiston and Spencer Surgery of the Chest. 8th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Saunders; 2010:1367-1377.
2C08
Key word: Initial Treatment of Vascular Steal Syndrome
Author: Babak J. Orandi, MD, MSc
Editor: Ying Wei Lum, MD
A 51-year-old male reports episodic light-headedness and vision changes that usually occur when he is working as a custodian. His pulse is 72 beats per minute; blood pressure is 126/87 mm Hg in the left arm and 147/103 mm Hg in the right arm. On physical examination, he is an obese man with a regular heart rate, no murmurs, clear lung sounds, a 2+ radial pulse on the right and a 1+ radial pulse on the left, and a carotid bruit present on the left but not on the right. The most appropriate next step in the diagnosis and management of his condition is:
View Answer
Answer: (D) Duplex ultrasonography
Rationale:
The patient is suffering from subclavian steal syndrome, which occurs when stenosis of the subclavian artery proximal to the origin of the vertebral artery results in retrograde blood flow in the ipsilateral vertebral artery. Blood flow is shunted preferentially away from the posterior circulation to the subclavian artery. Most stenoses are the result of atherosclerotic lesions. Patients are dependent on collateral blood flow through the circle of Willis, and any concomitant compromise of flow through the circle of Willis, the carotid arteries, or the contralateral vertebral artery will lead to symptoms.
Symptoms can include transient ischemic attacks, dizziness, vertigo, syncope, drop attacks, vision loss, ataxia, arm claudication, diminished or absent radial pulse, and a reduced blood pressure in the affected arm, and often occur after exercising the affected limb. The initial diagnostic test of choice is duplex ultrasonography as it has the benefit of being a noninvasive, relatively inexpensive, ionizing radiation-free imaging modality.
References:
Lum CF, Ilsen PF, Kawasaki B. Subclavian steal syndrome. Optometry. 2004;75:147-160.
Sidhu PS. Ultrasound of the carotid and vertebral arteries. Br Med Bull. 2000;56:346-366.
2C09
Key word: Risk Factors for Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm
Author: Babak J. Orandi, MD, MSc
Editor: Ying Wei Lum, MD
Which of the following is the strongest risk factor for the development of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)?
View Answer
Answer: (B) Current cigarette smoking
Rationale:
In a large, population-based study in Norway, Singh et al. determined that advanced age, a history of previous or current antihypertensive medication use, and a family history of aneurysmal disease are all significant risk factors for the development of an AAA. Male gender is also associated with a four-fold increase in risk. However, the strongest risk factor for AAA was cigarette smoking, particularly current smoking (OR 7.37 [3.70-14.69] p < 0.001 for men; OR 5.82 [2.92-11.58] p < 0.001 for women). A Canadian case-control study confirmed those results and found a dose-response effect between pack-years of cigarettes smoked and the risk of AAA, underscoring the importance of smoking cessation. Diabetes mellitus is not a risk factor for the development of AAA.
References:
Blanchard JF, Armenian HK, Friesen PP. Risk factors for abdominal aortic aneurysm: Results of a case-control study. Am J Epidemiol. 2000;151:575-583.
Singh K, Bønaa KH, Jacobsen BK, et al. Prevalence of and risk factors for abdominal aortic aneurysms in a population-based study: The Tromsø Study. Am J Epidemiol. 2001;154:236-244.
2C10
Key word: Treatment of Patient with AAA and Sigmoid Colon Cancer
Author: Babak J. Orandi, MD, MSc
Editor: Jonathan E. Efron, MD
An 82-year-old otherwise healthy and asymptomatic male with a recently diagnosed sigmoid colon cancer was noted on computed tomography (CT) to have a 6.1-cm infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). The rest of his CT scan was unremarkable. The most appropriate management for this patient is:
View Answer
Answer: (A) Endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR), then left hemicolectomy at a later date
Rationale: